On Wed, 2 Jul 2008, Monroe Eskew wrote:

> Here's my guess-- Qualitatively, different waveforms have different sounds,
> and this does not necessarily need to be interpreted as having overtones.
> However FILTERS are what truly reveal overtones. But the function of a
> filter is determined by the fact that its resonant frequency is always a
> sine wave. If we had square wave resonance, then we'd have totally
> different filters, with the square wave being the least affected by the
> filter.
>
> Is that more or less correct
>
> Also, does the Fourier expression make the most sense to the human ear
> (i.e. Does the human ear have something akin to sine wave resonance )

'Not exactly' and 'to a fair degree' are the answers. It happens
that the Fourier is roughly analogous to the physiological process
of sound detection. The cochlea discretizes sound in both
frequency and time and so perceptual overtones correspond to
components in the Fourier expansion. If hearing worked on a
different principle like zero crossing or peak detection, music
theory would be radically different.

m

--
Monty Brandenberg